Abstract
As an application of Cauchy's Theorem we prove that $\int_0^1\arctan\left({\arctanh x-\arctan x\over π+\arctanh x-\arctan x}\right) {dx\over x}= {π\over 8}\log{π^2\over 8}$ answering a question first posted in Mathematics Stack Exchange and then in MathOverflow.
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